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QUESTION 61

A cybersecurity analyst is retained by a firm for an open investigation. Upon arrival, the cybersecurity analyst reviews several security logs.

 

Given the following snippet of code:

 

image073

 

Which of the following combinations BEST describes the situation and recommendations to be made for this situation?

 

A.

The cybersecurity analyst has discovered host 192.168.0.101 using Windows Task Scheduler at 13:30 to runnc.exe; recommend proceeding with the next step of removing the host from the network.

B.

The cybersecurity analyst has discovered host 192.168.0.101 to be running thenc.exe file at 13:30 using the auto cron job remotely, there are no recommendations since this is not a threat currently.

C.

The cybersecurity analyst has discovered host 192.168.0.101 is beaconing every day at 13:30 using thenc.exe file; recommend proceeding with the next step of removing the host from the network.

D.

The security analyst has discovered host 192.168.0.101 is a rogue device on the network, recommend proceeding with the next step of removing the host from the network.

 

Correct Answer: A

 

 

QUESTION 62

A company wants to update its acceptable use policy (AUP) to ensure it relates to the newly implemented password standard, which requires sponsored authentication of guest wireless devices. Which of the following is MOST likely to be incorporated in the AUP?

 

A.

Sponsored guest passwords must be at least ten characters in length and contain a symbol.

B.

The corporate network should have a wireless infrastructure that uses open authentication standards.

C.

Guests using the wireless network should provide valid identification when registering their wireless devices.

D.

The network should authenticate all guest users using 802.1x backed by a RADIUS or LDAP server.

 

Correct Answer: C

 

 

QUESTION 63

An ATM in a building lobby has been compromised. A security technician has been advised that the ATM must be forensically analyzed by multiple technicians. Which of the following items in a forensic tool kit would likely be used FIRST? (Select TWO).

 

A.

Drive adapters

B.

Chain of custody form

C.

Write blockers

D.

Crime tape

E.

Hashing utilities

F.

Drive imager

 

Correct Answer: BC

 

 

QUESTION 64

An incident response report indicates a virus was introduced through a remote host that was connected to corporate resources. A cybersecurity analyst has been asked for a recommendation to solve this issue. Which of the following should be applied?

 

A.

MAC

B.

TAP

C.

NAC

D.

ACL

 

Correct Answer: C

 

 

QUESTION 65

Due to new regulations, a company has decided to institute an organizational vulnerability management program and assign the function to the security team. Which of the following frameworks would BEST support the program? (Select two.)

 

A.

COBIT

B.

NIST

C.

ISO 27000 series

D.

ITIL

E.

OWASP

 

Correct Answer: BD

 

 

QUESTION 66

Considering confidentiality and integrity, which of the following make servers more secure than desktops? (Select THREE).

 

A.

VLANs

B.

OS

C.

Trained operators

D.

Physical access restriction

E.

Processing power

F.

Hard drive capacity

 

Correct Answer: BCD

 

 

QUESTION 67

Review the following results:

 

image075

 

Which of the following has occurred?

 

A.

This is normal network traffic.

B.

123.120.110.212 is infected with a Trojan.

C.

172.29.0.109 is infected with a worm.

D.

172.29.0.109 is infected with a Trojan.

 

Correct Answer: A

 

 

QUESTION 68

When reviewing network traffic, a security analyst detects suspicious activity:

 

image077

 

Based on the log above, which of the following vulnerability attacks is occurring?

 

A.

ShellShock

B.

DROWN

C.

Zeus

D.

Heartbleed

E.

POODLE

 

Correct Answer: E

 

 

 

 

 

 

QUESTION 69

Which of the following best practices is used to identify areas in the network that may be vulnerable to penetration testing from known external sources?

 

A.

Blue team training exercises

B.

Technical control reviews

C.

White team training exercises

D.

Operational control reviews

 

Correct Answer: A

 

 

QUESTION 70

An organization wants to harden its web servers. As part of this goal, leadership has directed that vulnerability scans be performed, and the security team should remediate the servers according to industry best practices. The team has already chosen a vulnerability scanner and performed the necessary scans, and now the team needs to prioritize the fixes. Which of the following would help to prioritize the vulnerabilities for remediation in accordance with industry best practices?

 

A.

CVSS

B.

SLA

C.

ITIL

D.

OpenVAS

E.

Qualys

 

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 26

A SOHOcustomer has recently experienced a major hurricane. The customer has no backups and has lost all data and hardware associated with the company. The customer calls a contractor to assist in the rebuilding process and needs suggestions on the best way to prevent this from happening again. Which of the following recommendations should the contractor give to the customer? (Select two.)

 

A.

Backup testing

B.

Cloud storage

C.

Local storage backups

D.

Data recovery

E.

Hot site

F.

Waterproof devices

 

Correct Answer: BE

 

 

QUESTION 27

A Windows user is attempting to install a local printer and is unsuccessful on permissions. Which of the following user types BEST describes this user?

 

A.

Guest

B.

Power User

C.

Administrator

D.

Standard User

 

Correct Answer: A

 

 

QUESTION 28

An administrator is setting up a Windows terminal server. Which of the followingsettings should the administrator modify to increase server security? (Select two.)

 

A.

Change the default access port

B.

Enforce password complexity

C.

Put the terminal server into the router’s DMZ

D.

Disable logon time restrictions

E.

Block allunused ports on the LAN smart switch

F.

Use the local client certificate for server authentication

 

Correct Answer: CE

 

 

QUESTION 29

A technician is running updates on a Windows PC. Some of the updates install properly, while others appear as failed. While troubleshooting, the technician restarts the PC and attempts to install the failed updates again. The updates continue to fail. Which of the following is the FIRST option to check?

 

A.

Visit the Microsoft Update website to see if there is an issue with a specific update

B.

Look up the error number associated with the failed update

C.

Look at the system Event Viewer to find more information on the failure

D.

Download the failed update to install manually

 

Correct Answer: B

 

 

QUESTION 30

A technician is setting up a kiosk. The technician needs to ensure the kiosk is secure and users will have access to only the application needed for customer interaction. The technician must also ensure that whenever the computer is rebooted or powered on it logs on automatically without a password. Which of the following account types would the technician MOST likely set up on this kiosk machine?

 

A.

Guest

B.

Administrator

C.

Power User

D.

Remote Desktop User

 

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 21

A small business has an open wireless network so vendors can connect to the network without logging in. The business owners are concerned that a nearby company is connecting and using the wireless connection without permission. If the small business requires that the network remain open, which of the following configuration settings should be changed to address these concerns?

 

A.

Default SSID

B.

MAC filtering

C.

Power levels

D.

Content filtering

E.

Firewall

 

Correct Answer: C

 

 

QUESTION 22

A user’s computer is displaying a blackscreen. The technician restarts the computer, but the OS still does not load. The technician discovers the OS was patched the previous evening. Which of the following should the technician attempt NEXT?

 

A.

Reboot into safe mode and roll back the updates

B.

Repair the Windows Registry

C.

Configure boot options in the BIOS

D.

Disable Windows services and applications

 

Correct Answer: A

 

 

QUESTION 23

Joe, an end user, has been prompted to provide his username and password to access the payroll system. Which of the followingauthentication methods is being requested?

 

A.

Single-factor

B.

Multifactor

C.

RADIUS

D.

TACACS

 

Correct Answer: A

 

 

QUESTION 24

A user’s Windows laptop has become consistently slower over time. The technician checks the CPU utilization and sees that it varies between 95% and 100%. After the technician closes some runningapplications, the CPU utilization drops to approximately 20%, and the laptop runs much faster. The next day the same user calls again with the same problem. Which of the following is a tool the technician can use to resolve the issue?

 

A.

Task Manager

B.

MSTSC

C.

MSConfig

D.

PerfMon

 

Correct Answer: A

 

 

QUESTION 25

Which of the following is the amount of memory a user is limited to with a 32-bit version of Windows?

 

A.

2GB

B.

4GB

C.

8GB

D.

16GB

 

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 26

A user logs on a PC and receives a message stating there is a duplicate IP address on the network. After a system restart, the user notices the same error. Which of the following is the MOST probable cause of the error?

 

A.

The user is still logged into another device.

B.

The user has set a static IP address.

C.

The user has moved to a different office.

D.

The user has wireless and wired connections.

 

Correct Answer: B

 

 

QUESTION 27

A technician is setting up a WiFi-enabled thermostat for a customer, but the customer is concerned about IoT devices getting hacked. Which of the following BEST address the customer’s concerns? (Choose two.)

 

A.

Use the latest encryption standard on the wireless network and set a strong password.

B.

Enable two-factor authentication for the IoT device’s cloud account, if it is available.

C.

Separate the IoT thermostat by segregating it in a DMZ network.

D.

Disable wireless access on the thermostat to make it unshakable.

E.

Upgrade the customer’s router to the latest version to improve network security.

F.

Upgrade the customer’s wireless network encryption to WPA.

 

Correct Answer: AC

 

 

QUESTION 28

A server administrator set up a VM to be used in a lab setting. A technician is setting up thin-client computers to access this VM. Which of the following tasks are required to complete the project? (Choose three.)

 

A.

Connect the device to a printer.

B.

Install the operating system.

C.

Install a USB keyboard and mouse.

D.

Connect the device to the network.

E.

Install the latest system updates.

F.

Install the latest device drivers.

G.

Connect the device to a monitor.

H.

Install the necessary applications.

 

Correct Answer: DEH

 

 

QUESTION 29

A user accidentally spills liquid on a laptop. The user wants the device to be fixed and would like to know how much it will cost. Which of the following steps should the technician take NEXT to verify if the device is repairable before committing to a price? (Choose two.)

 

A.

Remove the case and organize the parts.

B.

Document the screw locations.

C.

Search the Internet for repair tutorials.

D.

Consult colleagues for advice.

E.

Place the device in rice for a few days.

 

Correct Answer: AB

 

 

QUESTION 30

Which of the following features will save the battery life of a laptop significantly if they are disabled? (Choose two.)

 

A.

Touchpad

B.

Volume

C.

Screen orientation

D.

Cellular

E.

Bluetooth

F.

Fingerprint reader

 

Correct Answer: DE

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QUESTION 21

Which of the following is the MOST likely cause for a network PC to have an APIPA address?

 

A.

DHCP failure

B.

DNS resolution

C.

Duplicate IP address

D.

Cleared ARP cache

 

Correct Answer: A

 

 

QUESTION 22

A server needs a RAM upgrade, and a technician has been tasked with retrieving the RAM from storage and then installing it. Whish of the following is the BEST RAM type for the technician to retrieve?

 

A.

SoDIMM

B.

DDR4

C.

Single channel

D.

ECC

 

Correct Answer: B

 

 

QUESTION 23

Laura, a customer, has instructed you to configure her home office wireless access point.

 

She plans to use the wireless network for finances and has requested that the network be setup with the highest encryption possible.

 

Additionally, Laura knows that her neighbors have wireless networks and wants to ensure that her network is not being interfered with by the other networks.

 

She requests that the default settings be changed to the following.

 

Wireless Name: HomeWiFi

 

Shared Key: CompTIA

 

Router Password: Secure$1

 

Finally, Laura wants to ensure that only her laptop and Smartphone can connect to the network.

 

Laptop: IP Address 192.168.1.100

 

Hardware Address: 00:0A:BF:03:C4:54

 

Smartphone: IP Address 192.168.1.101

 

Hardware Address: 09:2C:D0:22:3F:11

 

INSTRUCTIONS

Configure Laura’s wireless network using the network adapter window.

 

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the situation, please click the Reset All button.

 

image007

image009

image011

image013

 

Correct Answer: See the explanation below:

Explanation:

image014

image015

image016

 

 

QUESTION 24

A customer asks a technician to help set up a specialized computing system for video editing. Which of the following should the technician install on the workstation to BEST meet the customer’s specifications? (Choose two.)

 

A.

SSD

B.

Dual monitors

C.

Gigabit NIC

D.

Hypervisor

E.

Docking station

F.

NAS

 

Correct Answer: AB

 

 

 

 

 

 

QUESTION 25

Which of the following terminates a coaxial cable?

 

A.

DB9

B.

RJ45

C.

RG-59

D.

RS-232

 

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 111

What information can be used by a router running a link-state protocol to build and maintain its topological database? (Choose two.)

 

A.

hello packets

B.

SAP messages sent by other routers

C.

LSAs from other routers

D.

beacons received on point-to-point links

E.

routing tables received from other link-state routers

F.

TTL packets from designated routers

 

Correct Answer: AC

Explanation:

Reference: http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=24090&seqNum=4

 

Link state protocols, sometimes called shortest path first or distributed database protocols, are built around a well-known algorithm from graph theory,

E.W. Dijkstra’a shortest path algorithm. Examples of link state routing protocols are:

Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) for IP

The ISO’s Intermediate System to Intermediate System (IS-IS) for CLNS and IP DEC’s DNA Phase V

Novell’s NetWare Link Services Protocol (NLSP)

Although link state protocols are rightly considered more complex than distance vector protocols, the basic functionality is not complex at all:

1. Each router establishes a relationship–an adjacency–with each of its neighbors.

2. Each router sends link state advertisements (LSAs), some

3. Each router stores a copy of all the LSAs it has seen in a database. If all works well, the databases in all routers should be identical.

4. The completed topological database, also called the link state database, describes a graph of the internetwork. Using the Dijkstra algorithm, each router calculates the shortest path to each network and enters this information into the route table.

OSPF Tutorial

 

 

QUESTION 112

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

 

image096

 

A.

This is a default route.

B.

Adding the subnet mask is optional for the ip route command.

C.

This will allow any host on the 172.16.1.0 network to reach all known destinations beyond RouterA.

D.

This command is incorrect, it needs to specify the interface, such as s0/0/0 rather than an IP address.

E.

The same command needs to be entered on RouterA so that hosts on the 172.16.1.0 network can reach network 10.0.0.0.

 

Correct Answer: AC

Explanation:

This is obviously the default route which is set between the routers and since it is entered in such a manner that it ensures connectivity between the stub network and any host lying beyond RouterA.

 

 

 

 

 

QUESTION 113

Refer to the exhibit. The enterprise has decided to use the network address 172.16.0.0. The network administrator needs to design a classful addressing scheme to accommodate the three subnets, with 30, 40, and 50 hosts, as shown. What subnet mask would accommodate this network?

 

image097

 

A.

255.255.255.192

B.

255.255.255.224

C.

255.255.255.240

D.

255.255.255.248

E.

255.255.255.252

 

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Subnet mask A i.e. 255.255.255.192 with CIDR of /26 which means 64 hosts per subnet which are sufficient to accommodate even the largest subnet of 50 hosts.

 

image099

 

QUESTION 114

Refer to the exhibit. Given the output for this command, if the router ID has not been manually set, what router ID will OSPF use for this router?

 

image100

 

A.

10.1.1.2

B.

10.154.154.1

C.

172.16.5.1

D.

192.168.5.3

 

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The highest IP address of all loopback interfaces will be chosen -> Loopback 0 will be chosen as the router ID.

 

 

QUESTION 115

Which two of these functions do routers perform on packets? (Choose two.)

 

A.

Examine the Layer 2 headers of inbound packets and use that information to determine the next hops for the packets

B.

Update the Layer 2 headers of outbound packets with the MAC addresses of the next hops

C.

Examine the Layer 3 headers of inbound packets and use that information to determine the next hops for the packets

D.

Examine the Layer 3 headers of inbound packets and use that information to determine the complete paths along which the packets will be routed to their ultimate destinations

E.

Update the Layer 3 headers of outbound packets so that the packets are properly directed to valid next hops

F.

Update the Layer 3 headers of outbound packets so that the packets are properly directed to their ultimate destinations

 

Correct Answer: BC

Explanation:

This is the basic function of the router to receive incoming packets and then forward them to their required destination. This is done by reading layer 3 headers of inbound packets and update the info to layer 2 for further hopping.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

QUESTION 116

Refer to the exhibit. Why are two OSPF designated routers identified on Core-Router?

 

image101

 

A.

Core-Router is connected to more than one multi-access network.

B.

The router at 208.149.23.130 is a secondary DR in case the primary fails.

C.

Two router IDs have the same OSPF priority and are therefore tied for DR election

D.

The DR election is still underway and there are two contenders for the role.

 

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

OSPF elects one DR per multi-access network. In the exhibit there are two DR so there must have more than one multi-access network.

 

 

QUESTION 117

What does administrative distance refer to?

 

A.

the cost of a link between two neighboring routers

B.

the advertised cost to reach a network

C.

the cost to reach a network that is administratively set

D.

a measure of the trustworthiness of a routing information source

 

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk365/technologies_tech_note09186a0080094195.shtml

 

Administrative distance is the feature that routers use in order to select the best path when there are two or more different routes to the same destination from two different routing protocols. Administrative distance defines the reliability of a routing protocol. Each routing protocol is prioritized in order of most to least reliable (believable) with the help of an administrative distance value.

 

Administrative distance is the first criterion that a router uses to determine which routing protocol to use if two protocols provide route information for the same destination. Administrative distance is a measure of the trustworthiness of the source of the routing information. The smaller the administrative distance value, the more reliable the protocol.

 

 

QUESTION 118

Which IP address is a private address?

 

A.

12.0.0.1

B.

168.172.19.39

C.

172.20.14.36

D.

172.33.194.30

E.

192.169.42.34

 

Correct Answer: C

 

 

QUESTION 119

Refer to the exhibit. If the resume command is entered after the sequence that is shown in the exhibit, which router prompt will be displayed?

 

image102

 

A.

Router1>

B.

Router1#

C.

Router2>

D.

Router2#

 

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

After resuming the telnet session by using the Enter key after it has been suspended, it will resume back to the telnet session so it will be back to the router2>prompt.

 

 

QUESTION 120

A network administrator is trying to add a new router into an established OSPF network. The networks attached to the new router do not appear in the routing tables of the other OSPF routers. Given the information in the partial configuration shown below, what configuration error is causing this problem?

 

Router(config)# router ospf 1

 

Router(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 area 0

 

A.

The process id is configured improperly.

B.

The OSPF area is configured improperly.

C.

The network wildcard mask is configured improperly.

D.

The network number is configured improperly.

E.

The AS is configured improperly.

F.

The network subnet mask is configured improperly.

 

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

When configuring OSPF, the mask used for the network statement is a wildcard mask similar to an access list. In this specific example, the correct syntax would have been “network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0.”

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QUESTION 101

The network manager has requested a 300-workstation expansion of the network. The workstations are to be installed in a single broadcast domain, but each workstation must have its own collision domain. The expansion is to be as cost-effective as possible while still meeting the requirements. Which three items will adequately fulfill the request? (Choose three).

 

A.

One IP subnet with a mask of 255.255.254.0

B.

Two IP subnets with a mask of 255.255.255.0

C.

Seven 48-port hubs

D.

Seven 48-port switches

E.

One router interface

F.

Seven router interfaces

 

Correct Answer: ADE

Explanation:

To support 300 workstations in a single broadcast domain, we need to use a subnet mask which supports 512 hosts = 29-> /23 or 255.255.254.0 in decimal form -> A is correct. If we use 48-port switches we need 300/48 = 6.25 -> seven 48-port switches are enough because we also need trunking between them -> D is correct. We only need one router interface and it is connected with one of seven switches -> E is correct.

 

 

QUESTION 102

Which of the following IP addresses are valid Class B host addresses if a default Class B mask is in use? (Choose two.)

 

A.

10.6.8.35

B.

133.6.5.4

C.

192.168.5.9

D.

127.0.0.1

E.

190.6.5.4

 

Correct Answer: BE

Explanation:

The IP addresses 133.6.5.4 and 190.6.5.4 are both valid Class B addresses when a default mask is in use.

The Class B default mask is 255.255.0.0 and the range of valid addresses is 128.0.0.0- 191.255.255.255.

The IP address 10.6.8.35 is a Class A address. The Class A default mask is 255.0.0.0 and the range of valid addresses is 1.0.0.0 – 127.255.255.255, with the exception of the range 127.0.0.1 – 127.255.255.255, which is reserved and cannot be assigned.

The IP address 192.168.5.9 is a Class C address. The Class C default mask is 255.255.255.0 and the range of valid addresses is 192.0.0.0 – 223.255.255.255.

The IP address 127.0.0.1 is a Class A address, but it comes from a reserved portion that cannot be assigned.

The range 127.0.0.1 – 127.255.255.255 is used for diagnostics, and although any address in the range will work as a diagnostic address, 127.0.0.1 is known as the loopback address. If you can ping this address, or any address in the 127.0.0.1 – 127.255.255.255 range, then the NIC is working and TCP/IP is installed. The Class A default mask is 255.0.0.0 and the range of valid addresses is 1.0.0.0 – 127.255.255.255, with the exception of the range 127.0.0.1 – 127.255.255.255, which is reserved and cannot be assigned.

 

image086

 

 

QUESTION 103

Which statements are TRUE regarding Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses? (Choose three.)

 

A.

An IPv6 address is divided into eight 16-bit groups.

B.

A double colon (::) can only be used once in a single IPv6 address.

C.

IPv6 addresses are 196 bits in length.

D.

Leading zeros cannot be omitted in an IPv6 address.

E.

Groups with a value of 0 can be represented with a single 0 in IPv6 address.

 

Correct Answer: ABE

Explanation:

IPv6 addresses are divided into eight 16-bit groups, a double colon (::) can only be used once in an IPv6 address, and groups with a value of 0 can be represented with a single 0 in an IPv6 address.

The following statements are also true regarding IPv6 address:

IPv6 addresses are 128 bits in length.

Eight 16-bit groups are divided by a colon (:).

Multiple groups of 16-bit 0s can be represented with double colon (::).

Double colons (::) represent only 0s.

Leading zeros can be omitted in an IPv6 address.

The option stating that IPv6 addresses are 196 bits in length is incorrect. IPv6 addresses are 128 bits in length.

The option stating that leading zeros cannot be omitted in an IPv6 address is incorrect.

Leading zeros can be omitted in an IPv6 address.

 

 

QUESTION 104

Some routers have been configured with default routes. What are some of the advantages of using default routes? (Choose two)

 

A.

They establish routes that will never go down.

B.

They keep routing tables small.

C.

They require a great deal of CPU power.

D.

They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table

E.

They direct traffic from the internet into corporate networks.

 

Correct Answer: BD

Explanation:

Cisco administration 101: What you need to know about default routes

Reference: http://www.techrepublic.com/article/cisco-administration-101-what-you-need-to-know-about-default-routes/

 

QUESTION 105

After the network has converged, what type of messaging, if any, occurs between R3 and R4?

 

image088

 

A.

No messages are exchanged

B.

Hellos are sent every 10 seconds.

C.

The full database from each router is sent every 30 seconds.

D.

The routing table from each router is sent every 60 seconds.

 

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

HELLO messages are used to maintain adjacent neighbors so even when the network is converged, hellos are still exchanged. On broadcast and point-to-point links, the default is 10 seconds, on NBMA the default is 30 seconds.

Although OSPF is a link-state protocol the full database from each router is sent every 30 minutes (not seconds) therefore, C and D are not correct.

 

 

QUESTION 106

What is the default administrative distance of OSPF?

 

A.

90

B.

100

C.

110

D.

120

 

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Administrative distance is the feature that routers use in order to select the best path when there are two or more different routes to the same destination from two different routing protocols. Administrative distance defines the reliability of a routing protocol. Each routing protocol is prioritized in order of most to least reliable (believable) with the help of an administrative distance value.

Default Distance Value Table

This table lists the administrative distance default values of the protocols that Cisco supports:

 

image089

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

QUESTION 107

Refer to the output of the corporate router routing table shown in the graphic. The corporate router receives an IP packet with a source IP address of 192.168.214.20 and a destination address of 192.168.22.3. What will the router do with this packet?

 

image090

 

A.

It will encapsulate the packet as Frame Relay and forward it out interface Serial 0/0.117.

B.

It will discard the packet and send an ICMP Destination Unreachable message out interface FastEthernet 0/0.

C.

It will forward the packet out interface Serial 0/1 and send an ICMP Echo Reply message out interface serial 0/0.102.

D.

It will change the IP packet to an ARP frame and forward it out FastEthernet 0/0.

 

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Since the destination network is not in the routing table, and no default gateway has been configured, the router will discard the packet and send an ICMP Destination Unreachable message out interface FastEthernet 0/0. It knows to send it out Fa 0/0 because the routing table for the source IP address of 192.168.214.20 shows it was learned from the Fa 0/0 interface.

 

 

QUESTION 108

Refer to the exhibit. If the router Cisco returns the given output and has not had its router ID set manually, what value will OSPF use as its router ID?

 

image092

A.

192.168.1.1

B.

172.16.1.1

C.

1.1.1.1

D.

2.2.2.2

 

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

If a router-id is not configured manually in the OSPF routing process the router will automatically configure a router-id determined from the highest IP address of a logical interface (loopback interface) or the highest IP address of an active interface. If more than one loopback interfaces are configured, the router will compare the IP addresses of each of the interfaces and choose the highest IP address from the loopbacks.

 

 

QUESTION 109

A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782. The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table?

 

A.

the OSPF route

B.

the EIGRP route

C.

the RIPv2 route

D.

all three routes

E.

the OSPF and RIPv2 routes

 

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

When one route is advertised by more than one routing protocol, the router will choose to use the routing protocol which has lowest Administrative Distance. The Administrative Distances of popular routing protocols are listed below:

 

image093

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

QUESTION 110

Refer to the graphic. R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. What are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)

 

image094

 

A.

All of the routers need to be configured for backbone Area 1.

B.

R1 and R2 are the DR and BDR, so OSPF will not establish neighbor adjacency with R3.

C.

A static route has been configured from R1 to R3 and prevents the neighbor adjacency from being established.

D.

The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3.

E.

EIGRP is also configured on these routers with a lower administrative distance.

F.

R1 and R3 are configured in different areas.

 

Correct Answer: DF

Explanation:

This question is to examine the conditions for OSPF to create neighborhood. So as to make the two routers become neighbors, each router must be matched with the following items:

1. The area ID and its types;

2. Hello and failure time interval timer;

3. OSPF Password (Optional);

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QUESTION 111

Which command is needed to enable DHCP snooping if a switchport is connected to a DHCP server?

 

A.

ip dhcp snooping trust

B.

ip dhcp snooping

C.

ip dhcp trust

D.

ip dhcp snooping information

 

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

When configuring DHCP snooping, follow these guidelines:

DHCP snooping is not active until you enable the feature on at least one VLAN, and enable DHCP globally on the switch.

Before globally enabling DHCP snooping on the switch, make sure that the devices acting as the DHCP server and the DHCP relay agent are configured and enabled.

If a Layer 2 LAN port is connected to a DHCP server, configure the port as trusted by entering the “ip dhcp snooping trust” interface configuration command.

If a Layer 2 LAN port is connected to a DHCP client, configure the port as untrusted by entering the no ip dhcp snooping trust interface configuration command.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst6500/ios/12-2SX/configuration/guide/book/snoodhcp.html

 

 

QUESTION 112

Which AAA Authorization type includes PPP, SLIP, and ARAP connections?

 

A.

network

B.

IP mobile

C.

EXEC

D.

auth-proxy

 

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Method lists for authorization define the ways that authorization will be performed and the sequence in which these methods will be performed. A method list is simply a named list describing the authorization methods to be queried (such as RADIUS or TACACS+), in sequence. Method lists enable you to designate one or more security protocols to be used for authorization, thus ensuring a backup system in case the initial method fails. Cisco IOS software uses the first method listed to authorize users for specific network services; if that method fails to respond, the Cisco IOS software selects the next method listed in the method list. This process continues until there is successful communication with a listed authorization method, or all methods defined are exhausted. Method lists are specific to the authorization type requested:

Auth-proxy–Applies specific security policies on a per-user basis. For detailed information on the authentication proxy feature, refer to the chapter “Configuring Authentication Proxy” in the “Traffic Filtering and Firewalls” part of this book.

Commands–Applies to the EXEC mode commands a user issues. Command authorization attempts authorization for all EXEC mode commands, including global configuration commands, associated with a specific privilege level.

EXEC–Applies to the attributes associated with a user EXEC terminal session.

Network–Applies to network connections. This can include a PPP, SLIP, or ARAP connection.

Reverse Access–Applies to reverse Telnet sessions. When you create a named method list, you are defining a particular list of authorization methods for the indicated authorization type.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2/security/configuration/guide/fsecur_c/scfathor.html

 

 

QUESTION 113

Which switch feature prevents traffic on a LAN from being overwhelmed by continuous multicast or broadcast traffic?

 

A.

storm control

B.

port security

C.

VTP pruning

D.

VLAN trunking

 

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

A traffic storm occurs when packets flood the LAN, which creates excessive traffic and degrades network performance. The traffic storm control feature prevents LAN ports from being disrupted by a broadcast, multicast, or unicast traffic storm on physical interfaces from either mistakes in network configurations or from users issuing a DoS attack.

Reference: http://3c3cc.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/7600/ios/122SR/configuration/guide/sw cg/dos.pdf

QUESTION 114

When IP Source Guard with source IP filtering is enabled on an interface, which feature must be enabled on the access VLAN for that interface?

 

A.

DHCP snooping

B.

storm control

C.

spanning-tree portfast

D.

private VLAN

 

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

IP Source Guard Configuration Guidelines

You can configure static IP bindings only on nonrouted ports. If you enter the ip source binding mac-address vlan vlan-id ip-address interface interface-id global configuration command on a routed interface, this error message appears:

Static IP source binding can only be configured on switch port.

When IP source guard with source IP filtering is enabled on an interface, DHCP snooping must be enabled on the access VLAN for that interface.

If you are enabling IP source guard on a trunk interface with multiple VLANs and DHCP snooping is enabled on all the VLANs, the source IP address filter is applied on all the VLANs.

You can enable this feature when 802.1x port-based authentication is enabled.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst2960x/software/15-0_2_EX/security/configuration_guide/b_sec_152ex_2960-x_cg/b_sec_152ex_2960-x_cg_chapter_01110.html

 

 

QUESTION 115

The command storm-control broadcast level 75 65 is configured under the switch port connected to the corporate mail server. In which three ways does this command impact the traffic? (Choose three.)

 

A.

SNMP traps are sent by default when broadcast traffic reaches 65% of the lower-level threshold.

B.

The switchport is disabled when unicast traffic reaches 75% of the total interface bandwidth.

C.

The switch resumes forwarding broadcasts when they are below 65% of bandwidth.

D.

Only broadcast traffic is limited by this particular storm control configuration.

E.

Multicast traffic is dropped at 65% and broadcast traffic is dropped at 75% of the total interface bandwidth.

F.

The switch drops broadcasts when they reach 75% of bandwidth.

 

Correct Answer: CDF

Explanation:

storm-control{broadcast|multicast|unicast}level{level[level-low] |ppspps[pps-low]}

Configure broadcast, multicast, or unicast storm control. By default, storm control is disabled.

The keywords have these meanings:

 

For level, specify the rising threshold level for broadcast, multicast, or unicast traffic as a

percentage (up to two decimal places) of the bandwidth. The port blocks traffic when the rising

threshold is reached. The range is 0.00 to 100.00.

 

(Optional) For level-low, specify the falling threshold level as a percentage (up to two decimal

places) of the bandwidth. This value must be less than or equal to the rising suppression value.

The port forwards traffic when traffic drops below this level. If you do not configure a falling

suppression level, it is set to the rising suppression level. The range is 0.00 to 100.00.

 

In this case, the broadcast keyword was used so only broadcast traffic is limited.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3550/software/release/12-2_25_see/configuration/guide/3550SCG/swtrafc.html

 

 

QUESTION 116

Which private VLAN can have only one VLAN and be a secondary VLAN that carries unidirectional traffic upstream from the hosts toward the promiscuous ports and the gateway?

 

A.

isolated VLAN

B.

primary VLAN

C.

community VLAN

D.

promiscuous VLAN

 

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Understanding Primary, Isolated, and Community Private VLANs Primary VLANs and the two types of secondary VLANs (isolated and community) have these characteristics:

Primary VLAN– The primary VLAN carries traffic from the promiscuous ports to the host ports, both isolated and community, and to other promiscuous ports.

Isolated VLAN –An isolated VLAN is a secondary VLAN that carries unidirectional traffic upstream from the hosts toward the promiscuous ports.You can configure multiple isolated VLANs in a private VLAN domain; all the traffic remains isolated within each one. Each isolated VLAN can have several isolated ports, and the traffic from each isolated port also remains completely separate.

Community VLAN–A community VLAN is a secondary VLAN that carries upstream traffic from the community ports to the promiscuous port and to other host ports in the same community. You can configure multiple community VLANs in a private VLAN domain. The ports within one community can communicate, but these ports cannot communicate with ports in any other community or isolated VLAN in the private VLAN.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/configuration/guide/cli/CLIConfigurationGuide/PrivateVLANs.html

 

 

QUESTION 117

Refer to the exhibit. When a network administrator is attempting an SSH connection to the device, in which order does the device check the login credentials?

 

image073

A.

RADIUS server, local username, line password

B.

RADIUS server, line password, local username

C.

Line password, local username, RADIUS server

D.

Line password, RADIUS server, local username

 

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

SSH sessions use the vty lines, where the configured authentication method is named “default.” The AAA default login preference is stated in order from first to last, so here the “aaa authentication login default group radius local line” means to use RADIUS first, then if that fails use the local user database. Finally, if that fails use the line password.

 

 

QUESTION 118

A server with a statically assigned IP address is attached to a switch that is provisioned for DHCP snooping. For more protection against malicious attacks, the network team is considering enabling dynamic ARP inspection alongside DHCP snooping. Which solution ensures that the server maintains network reachability in the future?

 

A.

Disable DHCP snooping information option.

B.

Configure a static DHCP snooping binding entry on the switch.

C.

Trust the interface that is connected to the server with the ip dhcp snooping trust command.

D.

Verify the source MAC address of all untrusted interfaces with ip dhcp snooping verify mac-address command.

 

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Dynamic ARP inspection is a security feature that validates ARP packets in a network. It intercepts, logs, and discards ARP packets with invalid IP-to-MAC address bindings. This capability protects the network from certain man-in-the-middle attacks. Dynamic ARP inspection ensures that only valid ARP requests and responses are relayed.

The switch performs these activities:

Intercepts all ARP requests and responses on untrusted ports

Verifies that each of these intercepted packets has a valid IP-to-MAC address binding before updating the local ARP cache or before forwarding the packet to the appropriate destination.

Drops invalid ARP packets

Dynamic ARP inspection determines the validity of an ARP packet based on valid IP-to- MAC address bindings stored in a trusted database, the DHCP snooping binding database. This database is built by DHCP snooping if DHCP snooping is enabled on the VLANs and on the switch. If the ARP packet is received on a trusted interface, the switch forwards the packet without any checks. On untrusted interfaces, the switch forwards the packet only if it is valid. To ensure network reachability to the server, configure a static DHCP snooping binding entry on the switch.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3750/software/releas e/12-2_55_se/configuration/guide/scg3750/swdynarp.html

 

 

QUESTION 119

Which command would a network engineer apply to error-disable a switchport when a packet-storm is detected?

 

A.

router(config-if)#storm-control action shutdown

B.

router(config-if)#storm-control action trap

C.

router(config-if)#storm-control action error

D.

router(config-if)#storm-control action enable

 

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Configuring the Traffic Storm Control Shutdown Mode

To configure the traffic storm control shutdown mode on an interface, perform this task:

 

Command

Purpose

Step 1

Router(config)#interface{{type1 slot/port} | {port-channelnumber}}

Selects an interface to configure.

Step 2

Router(config-if)#storm-control actionshutdown

(Optional) Configures traffic storm control to error-disable ports when a traffic storm occurs.

Enter theno storm-control action shutdowncommand to revert to the default action (drop).

Use the error disable detection and recovery feature, or theshutdownandno shutdown

commands to reenable ports.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst6500/ios/12-2SX/configuration/guide/book/storm.html

 

 

QUESTION 120

A DHCP configured router is connected directly to a switch that has been provisioned with DHCP snooping. IP Source Guard with the ip verify source port-security command is configured under the interfaces that connect to all DHCP clients on the switch. However, clients are not receiving an IP address via the DHCP server. Which option is the cause of this issue?

 

A.

The DHCP server does not support information option 82.

B.

The DHCP client interfaces have storm control configured.

C.

Static DHCP bindings are not configured on the switch.

D.

DHCP snooping must be enabled on all VLANs, even if they are not utilized for dynamic address allocation.

 

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

When you enable both IP Source Guard and Port Security, using the ip verify source port- security interface configuration command, there are two caveats:

The DHCP server must support option 82, or the client is not assigned an IP address.

The MAC address in the DHCP packet is not learned as a secure address. The MAC address of the DHCP client is learned as a secure address only when the switch receives non-DHCP data traffic.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3550/software/releas e/12-2_25_see/configuration/guide/3550SCG/swdhcp82.html#wp1069615

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QUESTION 101

An administrator recently configured all ports for rapid transition using PortFast. After testing, it has been determined that several ports are not transitioning as they should. What is the reason for this?

 

A.

RSTP has been enabled per interface and not globally.

B.

The STP root bridge selection is forcing key ports to remain in non-rapid transitioning mode.

C.

STP is unable to achieve rapid transition for trunk links.

D.

The switch does not have the processing power to ensure rapid transition for all ports.

 

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

RSTP can only achieve rapid transition to the forwarding state on edge ports and on point-to-point links, not on trunk links. The link type is automatically derived from the duplex mode of a port. A port that operates in full-duplex is assumed to be point-to-point, while a half-duplex port is considered as a shared port by default. This automatic link type setting can be overridden by explicit configuration. In switched networks today, most links operate in full-duplex mode and are treated as point-to-point links by RSTP. This makes them candidates for rapid transition to the forwarding state.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/lan-switching/spanning-tree-protocol/24062-146.html

 

 

QUESTION 102

A network engineer must set the load balance method on an existing port channel. Which action must be done to apply a new load balancing method?

 

A.

Configure the new load balancing method using port-channel load-balance.

B.

Adjust the switch SDM back to “default”.

C.

Ensure that IP CEF is enabled globally to support all load balancing methods.

D.

Upgrade the PFC to support the latest load balancing methods.

 

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Example:

EtherChannel balances the traffic load across the links in a channel through the reduction of part of the binary pattern that the addresses in the frame form to a numerical value that selects one of the links in the channel. EtherChannel load balancing can use MAC addresses or IP addresses, source or destination addresses, or both source and destination addresses. The mode applies to all EtherChannels that are configured on the switch. You configure the load balancing and forwarding method with use of theport- channel load-balance {dst-ip | dst-mac | src-dst-ip | src-dst-mac | src-ip | src-mac} global configuration command.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/lan-switching/etherchannel/12023-4.html

 

 

 

 

 

 

QUESTION 103

An EtherChannel bundle has been established between a Cisco switch and a corporate web server. The network administrator noticed that only one of the EtherChannel links is being utilized to reach the web server. What should be done on the Cisco switch to allow for better EtherChannel utilization to the corporate web server?

 

A.

Enable Cisco Express Forwarding to allow for more effective traffic sharing over the EtherChannel bundle.

B.

Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on destination IP addresses.

C.

Disable spanning tree on all interfaces that are participating in the EtherChannel bundle.

D.

Use link-state tracking to allow for improved load balancing of traffic upon link failure to the server.

E.

Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on source IP addresses.

 

Correct Answer: E

Explanation:

EtherChannel load balancing can use MAC addresses, IP addresses, or Layer 4 port numbers, and either source mode, destination mode, or both. The mode you select applies to all EtherChannels that you configure on the switch. Use the option that provides the greatest variety in your configuration. For example, if the traffic on a channel only goes to a single MAC address (which is the case in this example, since all traffic is going to the same web server), use of the destination MAC address results in the choice of the same link in the channel each time. Use of source addresses or IP addresses can result in a better load balance.

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/lan-switching/etherchannel/12023-4.html

 

 

QUESTION 104

Refer to the exhibit. Switch A, B, and C are trunked together and have been properly configured for VTP. Switch B has all VLANs, but Switch C is not receiving traffic from certain VLANs. What would cause this issue?

 

image060

 

A.

A VTP authentication mismatch occurred between Switch A and Switch B.

B.

The VTP revision number of Switch B is higher than that of Switch A.

C.

VTP pruning is configured globally on all switches and it removed VLANs from the trunk interface that is connected to Switch C.

D.

The trunk between Switch A and Switch B is misconfigured.

 

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

VTP pruning increases network available bandwidth by restricting flooded traffic to those trunk links that the traffic must use to reach the destination devices. Without VTP pruning, a switch floods broadcast, multicast, and unknown unicast traffic across all trunk links within a VTP domain even though receiving switches might discard them. VTP pruning is disabled by default.

VTP pruning blocks unneeded flooded traffic to VLANs on trunk ports that are included in the pruning-eligible list. The best explanation for why switch C is not seeing traffic from only some of the VLANs, is that VTP pruning has been configured.

 

 

QUESTION 105

Which portion of AAA looks at what a user has access to?

 

A.

authorization

B.

authentication

C.

accounting

D.

auditing

 

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

AAA consists of the following three elements:

Authentication: Identifies users by login and password using challenge and response methodology before the user even gains access to the network. Depending on your security options, it can also support encryption.

Authorization: After initial authentication, authorization looks at what that authenticated user has access to do. RADIUS or TACACS+ security servers perform authorization for specific privileges by defining attribute-value (AV) pairs, which would be specific to the individual user rights. In the Cisco IOS, you can define AAA authorization with a named list or authorization method. Accounting: The last “A” is for accounting. It provides a way of collecting security information that you can use for billing, auditing, and reporting. You can use accounting to see what users do once they are authenticated and authorized. For example, with accounting, you could get a log of when users logged in and when they logged out.

Reference: http://www.techrepublic.com/blog/data-center/what-is-aaa-and-how-do-you-configure-it-in-the-cisco-ios/

 

 

QUESTION 106

While troubleshooting a network outage, a network engineer discovered an unusually high level of broadcast traffic coming from one of the switch interfaces. Which option decreases consumption of bandwidth used by broadcast traffic?

 

A.

storm control

B.

SDM routing

C.

Cisco IOS parser

D.

integrated routing and bridging

E.

Dynamic ARP Inspection

 

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Storm control prevents traffic on a LAN from being disrupted by a broadcast, multicast, or unicast storm on a port. A LAN storm occurs when packets flood the LAN, creating excessive traffic and degrading network performance. Errors in the protocol-stack implementation, mistakes in network configuration, or users issuing a denial-of-service attack can cause a storm.

Storm control is configured for the switch as a whole but operates on a per-port basis. By default, storm control is disabled.

Storm control uses rising and falling thresholds to block and then restore the forwarding of broadcast, unicast, or multicast packets. You can also set the switch to shut down the port when the rising threshold is reached.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst2950/software/releas e/12-1_22ea/SCG/scg/swtrafc.html

QUESTION 107

A network engineer configures port security and 802.1x on the same interface. Which option describes what this configuration allows?

 

A.

It allows port security to secure the MAC address that 802.1x authenticates.

B.

It allows port security tosecure the IP address that 802.1x authenticates.

C.

It allows 802.1x to secure the MAC address that port security authenticates.

D.

It allows 802.1x to secure the IP address that port security authenticates.

 

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

802.1X and Port Security

You can configure port security and 802.1X on the same interfaces. Port security secures the MAC addresses that 802.1X authenticates. 802.1X processes packets before port securityprocesses them, so when you enable both on an interface, 802.1X is already preventing inbound traffic on the interface from unknown MAC addresses.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/4_1/nx-os/security/configuration/guide/sec_nx-os-cfg/sec_portsec.html

 

 

QUESTION 108

When you configure a private VLAN, which type of port must you configure the gateway router port as?

 

A.

promiscuous port

B.

isolated port

C.

community port

D.

access port

 

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

There are mainly two types of ports in a Private VLAN: Promiscuous port (P-Port) and Host port.

Host port further divides in two types – Isolated port (I-Port) and Community port (C-port).

Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Private_VLAN

 

 

QUESTION 109

A Cisco Catalyst switch that is prone to reboots continues to rebuild the DHCP snooping database. What is the solution to avoid the snooping database from being rebuilt after every device reboot?

 

A.

A DHCP snooping database agent should be configured.

B.

Enable DHCP snooping for all VLANs that are associated with the switch.

C.

Disable Option 82 for DHCP data insertion.

D.

Use IP Source Guard to protect the DHCP binding table entries from being lost upon rebooting.

E.

Apply ip dhcp snooping trust on all interfaces with dynamic addresses.

 

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Minimum DHCP Snooping Configuration

The minimum configuration steps for the DHCP snooping feature are as follows:

1. Define and configure the DHCP server.

2. Enable DHCP snooping on at least one VLAN.

By default, DHCP snooping is inactive on all VLANs.

3. Ensure that DHCP server is connected through a trusted interface.

By default, the trust state of all interfaces is untrusted.

4. Configure the DHCP snooping database agent.

This step ensures that database entries are restored after a restart or switchover.

5. Enable DHCP snooping globally.

The feature is not active until you complete this step.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst6500/ios/12.2SX/configuration/guide/snoodhcp.html#wp1090479

 

 

QUESTION 110

On which interface can port security be configured?

 

A.

static trunk ports

B.

destination port for SPAN

C.

EtherChannel port group

D.

dynamic access point

 

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Port Security and Port Types

You can configure port security only on Layer 2 interfaces. Details about port security and different types of interfaces or ports are as follows:

Access ports–You can configure port security on interfaces that you have configured as Layer 2 access ports. On an access port, port security applies only to the access VLAN.

Trunk ports–You can configure port security on interfaces that you have configured as Layer 2 trunk ports. VLAN maximums are not useful for access ports. The device allows VLAN maximums only for VLANs associated with the trunk port.

SPAN ports–You can configure port security on SPAN source ports but not on SPAN destination ports.

Ethernet Port Channels–Port security is not supported on Ethernet port channels.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/4_1/nx- os/security/configuration/guide/sec_nx-os-cfg/sec_portsec.html

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QUESTION 91

Refer to the exhibit. A network associate has configured OSPF with the command:

 

City(config-router)# network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 area 0

 

After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are participating in OSPF. Which three of the interfaces shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF according to this configuration statement? (Choose three.)

 

image079

 

A.

FastEthernet0 /0

B.

FastEthernet0 /1

C.

Serial0/0

D.

Serial0/1.102

E.

Serial0/1.103

F.

Serial0/1.104

 

Correct Answer: BCD

Explanation:

The “network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 equals to network 192.168.12.64/26. This network has:

+ Increment: 64 (/26= 1111 1111.1111 1111.1111 1111.1100 0000)

+ Network address: 192.168.12.64

+ Broadcast address: 192.168.12.127

Therefore all interface in the range of this network will join OSPF.

 

 

QUESTION 92

An administrator must assign static IP addresses to the servers in a network. For network 192.168.20.24/29, the router is assigned the first usable host address while the sales server is given the last usable host address. Which of the following should be entered into the IP properties box for the sales server?

 

A.

IP address: 192.168.20.14

Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248

Default Gateway: 192.168.20.9

B.

IP address: 192.168.20.254

Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.0

Default Gateway: 192.168.20.1

C.

IP address: 192.168.20.30

Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248

Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25

D.

IP address: 192.168.20.30

Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240

Default Gateway: 192.168.20.17

E.

IP address: 192.168.20.30

Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240

Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25

 

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

With network 192.168.20.24/29 we have:

Increment: 8 (/29 = 255.255.255.248 = 11111000 for the last octet)

Network address: 192.168.20.24 (because 24 = 8 * 3)

Broadcast address: 192.168.20.31 (because 31 = 24 + 8 – 1)

Therefore the first usable IP address is 192.168.20.25 (assigned to the router) and the last usable IP address is 192.168.20.30 (assigned to the sales server). The IP address of the router is also the default gateway of the sales server.

 

 

QUESTION 93

Refer to the exhibit. Which command would you use to configure a static route on Router1 to network 192.168.202.0/24 with a nondefault administrative distance?

 

image080

 

A.

router1(config)#ip route 1 192.168.201.1 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2

B.

router1(config)#ip route 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 1

C.

router1(config)#ip route 5 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2

D.

router1(config)#ip route 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 5

 

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

The default AD for a static route is 1. To change this, configure a different value to be used as the AD at the very end of the “ip route” statement.

 

 

QUESTION 94

Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two.)

 

A.

Global addresses start with 2000::/3.

B.

Link-local addresses start with FE00:/12.

C.

Link-local addresses start with FF00::/10.

D.

There is only one loopback address and it is ::1.

E.

If a global address is assigned to an interface, then that is the only allowable address for the interface.

 

Correct Answer: AD

 

 

QUESTION 95

Scenario

Refer to the topology. Your company has decided to connect the main office with three other remote branch offices using point-to-point serial links. You are required to troubleshoot and resolve OSPF neighbor adjacency issues between the main office and the routers located in the remote branch offices. R1 does not form an OSPF neighbor adjacency with R2. Which option would fix the issue?

 

image062

image064

image066

image068

image070

image072

image074

image076

 

A.

R1 ethernetO/1 is shutdown. Configure no shutdown command.

B.

R1 ethernetO/1 configured with a non-default OSPF hello interval of 25: configure no ip ospf hello-interval 25

C.

R2 ethernetO/1 and R3 ethernetO/O are configured with a non-default OSPF hello interval of 25; configure no ip ospf hello-interval 25

D.

Enable OSPF for R1 ethernetO/1; configure ip ospf 1 area 0 command under ethernetO/1

 

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Looking at the configuration of R1, we see that R1 is configured with a hello interval of 25 on interface Ethernet 0/1 while R2 is left with the default of 10 (not configured).

 

image082

 

 

QUESTION 96

Which of the following describe the process identifier that is used to run OSPF on a router? (Choose two)

 

A.

It is locally significant.

B.

It is globally significant.

C.

It is needed to identify a unique instance of an OSPF database.

D.

It is an optional parameter required only if multiple OSPF processes are running on the router.

E.

All routers in the same OSPF area must have the same process ID if they are to exchange routing information.

 

Correct Answer: AC

Explanation:

https://learningnetwork.cisco.com/thread/6248

They are locally significant only, and have no bearing on the structure of any OSPF packet or LSA update. So you can have a separate process-id on every single router in your network if you so desire.

 

 

QUESTION 97

The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168.10.2 was issued on a router. No routing protocols or other static routes are configured on the router. Which statement is true about this command?

 

A.

The interface with IP address 192.168.10.2 is on this router.

B.

The command sets a gateway of last resort for the router.

C.

Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.160 will be sent to 192.168.10.2.

D.

The command creates a static route for all IP traffic with the source address 192.168.100.160.

 

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

With 160 it’s actually network address of /27 so any address within the range of .160-.191 network will be sent to 192.168.10.2.

 

 

QUESTION 98

What are two benefits of using a single OSPF area network design? (Choose two.)

 

A.

It is less CPU intensive for routers in the single area.

B.

It reduces the types of LSAs that are generated.

C.

It removes the need for virtual links.

D.

It increases LSA response times.

E.

It reduces the number of required OSPF neighbor adjacencies.

 

Correct Answer: BC

Explanation:

OSPF uses a LSDB (link state database) and fills this with LSAs (link state advertisement).

The link types are as follows:

 

image083LSA Type 1: Router LSA

image083[1]LSA Type 2: Network LSA

image083[2]LSA Type 3: Summary LSA

image083[3]LSA Type 4: Summary ASBR LSA

image083[4]LSA Type 5: Autonomous system external LSA

image083[5]LSA Type 6: Multicast OSPF LSA

image083[6]LSA Type 7: Not-so-stubby area LSA

image083[7]LSA Type 8: External attribute LSA for BGP

 

If all routers are in the same area, then many of these LSA types (Summary ASBR LSA, external LSA, etc) will not be used and will not be generated by any router.

 

All areas in an Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) autonomous system must be physically connected to the backbone area (Area 0). In some cases, where this is not possible, you can use a virtual link to connect to the backbone through a non-backbone area. You can also use virtual links to connect two parts of a partitioned backbone through a non- backbone area. The area through which you configure the virtual link, known as a transit area, must have full routing information. The transit area cannot be a stub area. Virtual links are not ideal and should really only be used for temporary network solutions or migrations. However, if all locations are in a single OSPF area this is not needed.

 

 

QUESTION 99

What is the OSPF default frequency, in seconds, at which a Cisco router sends hello packets on a multi-access network?

 

A.

10

B.

40

C.

30

D.

20

 

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

On broadcast multiacess and point-to-point links, the default is 10 seconds. On NBMA, the default is 30 seconds.

 

 

QUESTION 100

The internetwork infrastructure of company XYZ consists of a single OSPF area as shown in the graphic. There is concern that a lack of router resources is impeding internetwork performance. As part of examining the router resources, the OSPF DRs need to be known. All the router OSPF priorities are at the default and the router IDs are shown with each router. Which routers are likely to have been elected as DR? (Choose two.)

 

image084

 

A.

Corp-1

B.

Corp-2

C.

Corp-3

D.

Corp-4

E.

Branch-1

F.

Branch-2

 

Correct Answer: DF

Explanation:

There are 2 segments on the topology above which are separated by Corp-3 router. Each segment will have a DR so we have 2 DRs.

To select which router will become DR they will compare their router-IDs. The router with highest (best) router-ID will become DR. The router-ID is chosen in the order below:

 

+ The highest IP address assigned to a loopback (logical) interface.

+ If a loopback interface is not defined, the highest IP address of all active router’s physical interfaces will be chosen.

 

In this question, the IP addresses of loopback interfaces are not mentioned so we will consider IP addresses of all active router’s physical interfaces. Router Corp-4 (10.1.40.40) & Branch-2 (10.2.20.20) have highest “active” IP addresses so they will become DRs.